ABSTRACT

LDL receptors c. The major side effects of statins are a risk of renal failure and

headache d. Statins can safely be given in pregnancy

33. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) a. This is principally metabolised by the liver and eliminated by the

kidneys b. It probably has its analgesic action by an indirect action on m

receptors in the brain stem c. It has N-acetylbenzoquinoneimine as a toxic metabolite, which is

inactivated by glutathione d. When taken in overdose, the drug N-acetylcysteine should be

administered immediately

34. Blood transfusions a. Those who are blood group ‘O positive’ are considered universal

donors b. ABO incompatibility will present with cardiovascular collapse

due to haemolysis, usually after 12 hours c. Isolated pyrexia in the recipient of a blood transfusion may be due

to white cell antibodies d. Jaundice may present more than 7 days after a transfusion

35. Concerning syphilis a. The incidence is decreasing in the UK b. The presence of a widespread rash is likely to indicate tertiary

syphilis c. The primary chancre is usually painful d. The treatment regimen may depend on the patient’s HIV status

36. Which of the following may result in a defective human immune response? a. Viral infections b. Treatment with propylthiouracil c. Old age d. Obesity

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37. a. These include furosemide and bendroflumethiazide b. They work by inhibiting NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending

loop of Henle c. They work only in acute decompensated heart failure after a

significant diuresis has been achieved d. They may cause irreversible deafness

38. In glycolysis a. The main compound formed is acetyl-CoA b. Insulin will inhibit glycolysis c. Low levels of intracellular ATP will stimulate glycolysis d. Adrenaline (epinephrine) will stimulate glycolysis

39. Which of the following may cause chronic hepatitis? a. Hepatitis A b. Wilson’s disease c. Treatment with amiodarone d. SLE

40. In head injuries a. Tachycardia and hypotension result from rising intracranial

pressure b. Pupil dilatation occurs on the contralateral side to an intracranial

haematoma c. Autoregulation may be lost d. Normocapnia should be aimed for in ventilated patients

41. Features of an acute myocardial infarction on an ECG that are recognised indications for thrombolysis include the following a. ST elevation of 1 mm in V5 and V6 b. Left bundle-branch block c. ST elevation of 2 mm in two or more contiguous chest leads d. New right bundle-branch block

42. Chest radiograph findings in aortic dissection include the following a. Widened mediastinum b. Right-sided pleural effusion c. Leftward tracheal deviation d. Double aortic knuckle

43. Von Willebrand’s disease a. This is a family of disorders that together represent the most

common inherited bleeding disorder b. It commonly presents with epistaxis and menorrhagia c. It may be acquired secondary to hypothyroidism d. The bleeding time is usually abnormal

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44. The ulnar a. This is the terminal branch of the anterior cord of the brachial

plexus b. It supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the hand c. If damaged it results in paraesthesia of the medial 212 digits d. Injury leads to wrist drop

45. Criteria for transfer to a regional burns unit include the following a. Full-thickness burns of greater than 5% of the body surface area b. Patients with burns and type 1 diabetes c. 3% partial-thickness burns over the perineum d. 3% partial-thickness burns in a child aged 4 years

46. Regarding confidence intervals when analysing data from a clinical trial a. A 95% confidence interval gives a range around the trial data

within which we can be 95% sure that the true value lies b. A 95% confidence interval is calculated as 1 standard deviation

either side of the trial result c. The wider the confidence interval the more likely that the trial

result is true d. Confidence intervals assume the use of parametric data

47. Giardiasis a. This is a diarrhoeal disease of the colon b. It is an important cause of travellers’ diarrhoea c. It is caused by an anaerobic bacterium d. It may cause steatorrhoea

48. The anterior upper arm a. Contains biceps, coracobrachialis and brachialis, the combined

action of which flexes the arm b. The muscles of the anterior arm are supplied by the musculocu-

taneous nerve c. The biceps tendon lies medial to the brachial artery at the elbow d. The musculocutaneous nerve terminates as the lateral cutaneous

nerve of the forearm

49. Regarding scabies a. Intense itching occurs at the time of infection b. Treatment should include all family members c. There is no need to change clothes/bed linen d. A typically infested person has thousands of mites

50. Axillary nerve damage a. This may occur in anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint b. It commonly occurs in mid-shaft humeral fractures c. It results in weakness of deltoid and teres minor muscles d. There is no sensory loss

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1a. T 1b. F 1c. F 1d. T The femoral sheath is a fascial tube that extends 3-4 cm inferior to the inguinal ligament. It encloses the proximal part of the femoral vessels and the femoral canal. The femoral nerve lies outside the sheath on the lateral aspect. The femoral sheath has three compartments: the lateral compartment contains the femoral artery, the intermediate compartment contains the femoral vein, and the medial compartment (femoral canal) contains connective tissue, fat, lymph vessels and sometimes a deep inguinal lymph node (Cloquet’s node). The base of the femoral canal is called the femoral ring.