ABSTRACT
Although we find the emphasis on peace rather than justice (as the goal of philosophy) in his post 1933 work, it is clear that taken either way, Wittgenstein is not here defining philosophy as it is traditionally done. This lends support to my earlier point that he conceived of his own work as new. No orthodox philosopher would naturally perceive a connection between justice/peace and linguistic perspicuity, nor would they conceive it as their philosophical task to pursue the goal of justice or peace via the method of perspicuity. How might we understand his remarks?
