ABSTRACT
ARTERIAL EMBOLI 2. A patient presents with evidence of a spontaneous acute arterial obstruction to the
left upper limb. The hand and forearm are cool, pale, and painful. No distal pulses are palpable. Which one of the following represents the standard approach to treatment? A. Embolectomy and intraarterial urokinase B. Percutaneous intraarterial urokinase and a calcium channel blocker C. Intravenous heparin therapy and embolectomy D. Intravenous heparin therapy, embolectomy, and subsequent warfarin therapy E. Low-molecular-weight heparin and embolectomy
RAYNAUD’S DISEASE 3. A 50-year-old woman presents with a diagnosis of Raynaud’s disease managed by
her general practitioner. For the past 5 years she has had episodes in cold weather where her fingers become pale, then blue, before turning bright red. Which one of the following is correct regarding this woman’s condition? A. She will also have signs of systemic sclerosis. B. Her diagnosis forms part of a systemic autoimmune condition. C. The age at which she first experienced symptoms is typical of this condition. D. She is likely to have been prescribed nifedipine by her own doctor. E. Vasospasm and hyperemia will be limited to the hands and feet.
