ABSTRACT
HIV RNA copy number c) Oral bioavailability is consistent and 95 per cent d) Cause many drug-drug interactions due to inhibition of
CYP3A e) HIV resistance to one agent in the class usually means cross-
resistance to others
344 The following are used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) in patients with HIV infection:
a) Aztreonam b) Intravenous co-trimoxazole c) Rifabutin d) Pentamidine e) Glucocorticosteroids if the arterial PO2 is less than
60 mmHg
345 Quinine sulfate:
a) Is the drug of choice in chloroquine-resistant falciparum malaria
b) Is available for intravenous and oral use c) Is effective in eradicating the hepatic parasites in Plasmodium vivax
malaria d) Is contraindicated in renal failure e) Large therapeutic doses cause tinnitus
346 The following adverse effects are paired with the correct causative antimalarial drug:
a) Acneiform eruption – chloroquine b) Stevens-Johnson syndrome – quinine c) Psychosis – mefloquine d) Prolongation of QTc – proguanil e) Haemolytic anaemia – primaquine
347 The following infections have been paired with appropriate drug therapy:
a) Trypanosoma gambiense (African sleeping sickness), early stages – pentamidine and suramin
b) Giardia lamblia – metronidazole c) Taenia saginata (a tapeworm) – emetine d) Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm) – mebendazole e) Toxocara canis – pyraquantal
a) Cyclophosphamide b) Methotrexate c) 5-Fluorouracil d) Interleukin 2 e) Cisplatin
349 The following cytotoxic drugs may be associated with profound and prolonged myelosuppression:
a) Chlorambucil b) Melphalan c) 1,3-bis (2 chloroethyl)-1-nitroso-urea (BCNU) d) Bleomycin e) Vincristine
350 During cancer chemotherapy:
a) Infection is the commonest life-threatening complication b) Infection is often acquired from the patient’s own gut flora c) If infection occurs, pyrexia is usually absent d) Men and women must be strongly advised to avoid conception e) There is a danger of inducing second malignancies
351 Cyclophosphamide:
a) Is normally used in combination with other cytotoxic agents b) Is an alkylating agent c) Causes granulocytopenia d) Causes nausea and vomiting e) Causes alopecia
352 Methotrexate:
a) Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase which synthesises tetrahydrofolate from dihydrofolate
b) The toxicity of high doses can be reduced by giving folinic acid 24 hours after the methotrexate
c) Is primarily excreted in the bile d) Chronic treatment can cause cirrhosis e) Is the first-line treatment for choriocarcinoma
353 The following cytotoxic drugs are paired with a characteristic adverse effect:
a) Etoposide – peripheral neuropathy b) Paclitaxel – alopecia c) Daunorubicin – cardiomyopathy d) Irinotecan – diarrhoea e) 6-Mercaptopurine – pulmonary fibrosis
a) Pretreatment hydration is mandatory b) Pretreatment with dexamethasone and a 5HT3 antagonist (e.g.
