ABSTRACT
Question 24 A 27-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-day history of visual loss and pain affecting her right eye, which came on over the course of a day. She says that she noticed that colours became less prominent before her vision deteriorated. She reports that she had a similar episode a year previously, and that she has experienced an episode of transient weakness affecting her legs during the past 6 months. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Please choose the single best answer from the following answers: 1) Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy 2) Benign intracranial hypertension 3) Optic neuritis 4) Pituitary adenoma 5) Toxic optic neuropathy
Answers Investigations: SBAs Answer 21 5) Left homonymous upper quadrantanopia: Fibres of the optic radiation representing the lower half of the retina pass through the temporal lobe (known as Meyer’s loop). A mass compressing these fibres in the right temporal lobe will produce a left homonymous upper quadrantanopia.
